cardiovascular disease

A 55-year-old man, non-smoker, presents for a health check. BP 135/85 mmHg, total cholesterol 5.5 mmol/L, HDL 1.2 mmol/L. No personal history of CVD or diabetes. Family history of premature CVD in father. BMI 28. Based on Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 52-year-old woman with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to your clinic for a routine follow-up. She has been experiencing difficulty in controlling her blood glucose levels despite being on metformin and glipizide. Her HbA1c is 8.5%. She has a BMI of 32 kg/m² and a sedentary lifestyle. She reports consuming a diet high in processed foods and sugary beverages. Her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, and her lipid profile shows elevated LDL cholesterol. Which of the following dietary and lifestyle modifications is most likely to improve her glycemic control and overall cardiovascular risk profile?

A 65-year-old male with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents with stable angina. He is currently on metformin, atorvastatin, and lisinopril. Which of the following medications is most appropriate to add to his regimen to reduce angina symptoms?

A 72-year-old male presents to his general practitioner for a routine check-up. He reports a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a 40-pack-year smoking history. He denies any abdominal pain, back pain, or lower extremity claudication. On physical examination, his vital signs are within normal limits. Auscultation of the abdomen is unremarkable, and peripheral pulses are palpable and symmetric. As part of his cardiovascular risk assessment, a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed. An axial view from the scan is shown. Based on the image and the patient's clinical presentation, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain radiating to the back. He is a smoker and has a history of hypertension. On examination, he is diaphoretic, with a heart rate of 120 bpm and blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. Abdominal examination reveals a pulsatile mass in the midline. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 68-year-old male presents for routine follow-up. He is asymptomatic. Review the image. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents with recurrent episodes of palpitations and near-syncope. His ECG during an episode shows a wide QRS complex tachycardia with a rate of 220 bpm. There is no evidence of structural heart disease on echocardiography. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of his arrhythmia?

A 62-year-old Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander man presents for a routine check-up. He has a history of smoking, obesity, and type 2 diabetes, managed with metformin. His blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg. Which of the following is the MOST significant modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease in this patient?

A patient is on metformin 1g BD, with a blood pressure of 135/85 mmHg, HbA1c of 8.5%, no history of cardiovascular disease, fasting blood sugar of 9 mmol/L, and an albumin/creatinine ratio of 500. Which drug should be added to their treatment regimen?

A 50-year-old Aboriginal man presents for a routine check. He has a history of smoking and lives in a remote community. What screening is most important to address his increased risk?

A 40-year-old Aboriginal man presents for a health check. He has a strong family history of diabetes and cardiovascular disease. What is the most appropriate initial screening test to assess his risk?

A 68-year-old male presents for a routine check-up. He has a history of smoking and hypertension, managed with lisinopril. He denies any abdominal pain, back pain, or lower extremity claudication. Physical exam is unremarkable. A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 60-year-old non-smoker has a calculated 5-year cardiovascular disease risk of 12%. Based on current Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial management focus?

A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presented to the emergency department with a sudden onset of left-sided hemianopia and mild right-sided weakness. Her symptoms began approximately 4 hours prior to arrival. Initial neurological examination revealed a left homonymous hemianopia, mild right hemiparesis (4/5 strength), and intact sensation. A CT angiogram was performed, identifying a cerebral aneurysm, and the patient subsequently underwent endovascular coiling. The provided image was obtained immediately following the procedure. Despite the intervention, the patient's left homonymous hemianopia persists, and her right hemiparesis has not improved. Considering the findings on the post-procedure imaging in the context of her ongoing neurological deficits, which of the following is the MOST appropriate immediate management step?

A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to his back. He describes the pain as tearing in nature. He has a history of hypertension and is a smoker. On examination, his blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg in the right arm and 160/100 mmHg in the left arm. His heart rate is 110 bpm, and he has diminished pulses in the left radial artery. A chest X-ray shows a widened mediastinum. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 55-year-old non-smoker with no known comorbidities has a consistent office BP of 155/98 mmHg. His 10-year CVD risk is calculated as low. According to Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial management?

A 68-year-old male presents for a routine check-up. He has a history of smoking and hypertension, managed with lisinopril. He denies any abdominal pain, back pain, or lower extremity claudication. Physical exam is unremarkable. A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 68-year-old man with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and stable angina is scheduled for elective hernia repair surgery. He is currently on aspirin, metformin, lisinopril, and atorvastatin. His last angina episode was over a year ago, and he has no history of myocardial infarction. What is the most appropriate preoperative management step to minimize his cardiovascular risk during surgery?

A 68-year-old man with a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath and fatigue over the past week. On examination, he has elevated jugular venous pressure, bilateral lung crackles, and peripheral edema. An echocardiogram reveals reduced ejection fraction and dilated ventricles. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiological mechanism leading to his symptoms?

A 40-year-old Aboriginal man presents for a health check. He reports feeling well but has a strong family history of diabetes and cardiovascular disease. What is the most appropriate initial screening test?

A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension and smoking presents for a routine check-up. He is concerned about his risk of cardiovascular disease and asks for advice on lifestyle modifications. Which of the following lifestyle changes would most significantly reduce his risk of cardiovascular events?

A 60-year-old Aboriginal man presents for a routine check-up. He has a history of smoking and lives in a remote community. Which screening is MOST important, considering higher prevalence in this population?

A 68-year-old male presents for a routine check-up. He has a history of smoking and hypertension, well-controlled with medication. He denies any abdominal pain, back pain, or lower extremity claudication. Physical exam is unremarkable. A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A middle-aged man who already has a 20% cardiovascular risk and is on lifestyle modification and statin therapy: Which one of the following helps you assess his cardiovascular risk?

A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset severe abdominal pain radiating to the back. He has a history of hypertension and is a smoker. On examination, he is diaphoretic and in distress, with a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg and a heart rate of 110 bpm. Abdominal examination reveals a pulsatile mass in the midline. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 68-year-old man with a history of smoking and hypertension presents with intermittent claudication in his right leg. Ankle-brachial index (ABI) is 0.6 on the right and 0.9 on the left. He has been on a supervised exercise program and optimal medical therapy for 6 months with no improvement in symptoms. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A middle-aged man with a 20% estimated cardiovascular risk is already on lifestyle modifications and statin therapy. Which of the following investigations can help further assess or reclassify his cardiovascular risk?